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Archive for May 24th, 2007

Answer 6

Posted by Dim Bulb on May 24, 2007

The answer is false.  The soul can be happy (i.e. enjoy happiness) without the body:

_On the contrary,_ It is written (Apoc. 14:13): "Happy [Douay:
'blessed'] are the dead who die in the Lord."

_I answer that,_ Happiness is twofold; the one is imperfect and is had
in this life; the other is perfect, consisting in the vision of God.
Now it is evident that the body is necessary for the happiness of this
life. For the happiness of this life consists in an operation of the
intellect, either speculative or practical. And the operation of the
intellect in this life cannot be without a phantasm, which is only in
a bodily organ, as was shown in the First Part (Q. 84, AA. 6, 7).
Consequently that happiness which can be had in this life, depends, in
a way, on the body. But as to perfect Happiness, which consists in the
vision of God, some have maintained that it is not possible to the
soul separated from the body; and have said that the souls of saints,
when separated from their bodies, do not attain to that Happiness
until the Day of Judgment, when they will receive their bodies back
again. And this is shown to be false, both by authority and by reason.
By authority, since the Apostle says (2 Cor. 5:6): "While we are in
the body, we are absent from the Lord"; and he points out the reason
of this absence, saying: "For we walk by faith and not by sight." Now
from this it is clear that so long as we walk by faith and not by
sight, bereft of the vision of the Divine Essence, we are not present
to the Lord. But the souls of the saints, separated from their bodies,
are in God's presence; wherefore the text continues: "But we are
confident and have a good will to be absent . . . from the body, and
to be present with the Lord." Whence it is evident that the souls of
the saints, separated from their bodies, "walk by sight," seeing the
Essence of God, wherein is true Happiness.
Again this is made clear by reason. For the intellect needs not the
body, for its operation, save on account of the phantasms, wherein it
looks on the intelligible truth, as stated in the First Part (Q. 84,
A. 7). Now it is evident that the Divine Essence cannot be seen by
means of phantasms, as stated in the First Part (Q. 12, A. 3).
Wherefore, since man's perfect Happiness consists in the vision of
the Divine Essence, it does not depend on the body. Consequently,
without the body the soul can be happy.

We must, however, notice that something may belong to a thing's
perfection in two ways. First, as constituting the essence thereof;
thus the soul is necessary for man's perfection. Secondly, as
necessary for its well-being: thus, beauty of body and keenness of
perfection belong to man's perfection. Wherefore though the body does
not belong in the first way to the perfection of human Happiness, yet
it does in the second way. For since operation depends on a thing's
nature, the more perfect is the soul in its nature, the more
perfectly it has its proper operation, wherein its happiness
consists. Hence, Augustine, after inquiring (Gen. ad lit. xii, 35)
"whether that perfect Happiness can be ascribed to the souls of the
dead separated from their bodies," answers "that they cannot see the
Unchangeable Substance, as the blessed angels see It; either for some
other more hidden reason, or because they have a natural desire to
rule the body."

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Answer 5

Posted by Dim Bulb on May 24, 2007

It is an action of the intellect:

_On the contrary,_ Our Lord said (John 17:3): "This is eternal life:
that they may know Thee, the only true God." Now eternal life is the
last end, as stated above (A. 2, ad 1). Therefore man's happiness
consists in the knowledge of God, which is an act of the intellect.

Thomas goes on to develop this considerably.

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Answer 4

Posted by Dim Bulb on May 24, 2007

The answer is false:

On the contrary,_ Happiness is man's true good...Furthermore, we must observe that human knowledge often fails,
especially in contingent singulars, such as are human acts. For this
reason human glory is frequently deceptive. But since God cannot be
deceived, His glory is always true; hence it is written (2 Cor.
10:18): "He . . . is approved . . . whom God commendeth."
The Apostle speaks, then, not of the glory which is
with men, but of the glory which is from God, with His Angels. Hence
it is written (Mk. 8:38): "The Son of Man shall confess him in the
glory of His Father, before His angels" [*St. Thomas joins Mk. 8:38
with Luke 12:8 owing to a possible variant in his text, or to the
fact that he was quoting from memory].

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Answer 3

Posted by Dim Bulb on May 24, 2007

 The answer is his happiness consists in retaining it. It should be noted that Aquinas is responding to the idea that happiness consists in wealth.

_On the contrary,_ Man’s good consists in retaining happiness ratheRthan in spreading it.

“When St Thomas ssays that happiness, unlike wealth, is good when possessed, not when spread, he does not mean that our happiness is not in fact increased when we

make others happy, but that the essential meaning of “happiness” is the satisfaction of an individual’s desires. These may and should include the desire to make

happy too. (Peter Kreeft A SUMMA OF THE SUMMA)



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Answer 2

Posted by Dim Bulb on May 24, 2007

The Answer is yes:

Now it is clear
that whatever actions proceed from a power, are caused by that power
in accordance with the nature of its object. But the object of the
will is the end and the good. Therefore all human actions must be for
an end.

Reply Obj. 1: Although the end be last in the order of execution, yet
it is first in the order of the agent's intention. And it is this way
that it is a cause.

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Answer 1

Posted by Dim Bulb on May 24, 2007

1.  The answer is no:

_I answer that,_ Of actions done by man those alone are properly
called "human," which are proper to man as man. Now man differs from
irrational animals in this, that he is master of his actions.
Wherefore those actions alone are properly called human, of which man
is master. Now man is master of his actions through his reason and
will; whence, too, the free-will is defined as "the faculty and will
of reason." Therefore those actions are properly called human which
proceed from a deliberate will. And if any other actions are found in
man, they can be called actions "of a man," but not properly "human"
actions, since they are not proper to man as man.

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